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5 years ago  ::  May 02, 2009 - 10:19PM #1
rstrats
Posts: 30

A poster on another forum, the topic of which was questioning the authenticity of the last 12 verses in the book of Mark, wrote that it doesn't really matter because there is no doctrinal teaching in Mark 16:9-20 that cannot be proved elsewhere in agreed Scripture.


I made the mistake of sticking my nose into the discussion by pointing out that actually there is a statement in verse 9, as the KJV and similar versions have it, that is used for a doctrinal teaching that is to be found nowhere else in Scripture. As the KJV translates it, it is the only place that puts the resurrection on the first day of the week. I then suggested that whenever the discussion of seventh day observance versus first day observance comes up, first day proponents usually use the idea of a first day resurrection to justify the change, and when questioned about the day of resurrection, quote Mark 16:9. The poster came back with: "Quote a published author who has done that." - I have not yet been able to come up with one. Does anyone here know of one?

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5 years ago  ::  May 24, 2009 - 7:59AM #2
rstrats
Posts: 30

Anyone?

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5 years ago  ::  May 24, 2009 - 11:08AM #3
Peter_d_roman
Posts: 5,999

May 24, 2009 -- 7:59AM, rstrats wrote:


Anyone?




 


Yash'wa Our Savior Brother once called His Teams attention to old and wise scriptural scholars parsing through there scrolls in the tempal area as The Living Scriptures came pouring from Our Brothers Mouth-


 


Yash'wa Our Savior -Our  Messiah said " look at them there searching the scriptures as if there in the will find Salvation!"


 


what dose that statement mean to you? 


 


why are you doing as the scholars did - looking for salvation were it can NOT be found?


 


peace and good and tons o'love


 


>o

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5 years ago  ::  May 24, 2009 - 1:19PM #4
rstrats
Posts: 30

Peter_d_roman,


re: "why are you doing as the scholars did - looking for salvation were it can NOT be found?"


 


Thanks for responding, but I'm afraid I don't understand how your comments are germane to my OP. Could you please explain?

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5 years ago  ::  May 24, 2009 - 2:39PM #5
Peter_d_roman
Posts: 5,999

May 24, 2009 -- 1:19PM, rstrats wrote:


Peter_d_roman,


re: "why are you doing as the scholars did - looking for salvation were it can NOT be found?"


 


Thanks for responding, but I'm afraid I don't understand how your comments are germane to my OP. Could you please explain?




 


i will try to-


 


your posting seems to be a work akin to what the students of scriptures were doing " searching for salvation " or some written proof of or path to  salvation as SALVATION Him Self was speaking Living Words from Living Lips going into living ears nesting in living hearts.- as He continues to do- unless we turn our ears to ink on paper words as our "accepted"  authority.


 


just because the gospel records speaks of SOME of what Our Savior Brother said to us- it dose not mean it is He  Our Savior Brother Speaking His Full Message-


 


its easy to get lost in forest when all the trees get in our path.


 


did that help or not?


 


 


peace and good and tons o'love


 


>o

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5 years ago  ::  May 26, 2009 - 8:08PM #6
bigbear6161
Posts: 4,081

Hi.  I'm new to this board but have been around B'net several years.  The canonical end of Mark is generally recognized to be a late addition probably intended to add a resurrection appearance as Mark lacks one.  The angel in the tomb, and the Transfiguration are the "resurrection" appearances in the original Mark as written.  Some suggest that there was a resurrection appearance in the original but that it was lost and so the longer ending was added to replace it.  This is unlikely.  The abrupt ending of original Mark has a startling quality, which many find intentional.  Whether or not one needs the longer ending to prove some theological point or not, seems to me irrelevant.  The resurrection appearance stories took form by the time of Matthew and Luke, and of course John has his own.  These seem to have various elements in them from slightly different traditions, such as Jesus not being recognized, and being able to move through walls, etc, that seem rather evolved versions of an earlier tradition.  The original references to the resurrection are either fuzzy, mythological and eschatological as in Mark, or somewhat subjective and interior as in Paul's accounts.  I love the quote by I think it's Crossan that goes something like "Emmaus never happened; Emmaus happens everyday." Dave

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5 years ago  ::  May 28, 2009 - 7:09AM #7
rstrats
Posts: 30

bigbear6161,


re: " Whether or not one needs the longer ending to prove some theological point or not, seems to me irrelevant."


But not to those who use a first day resurrection to support/justify the change of observance from the seventh day to the first day.


 

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5 years ago  ::  May 28, 2009 - 7:14AM #8
rstrats
Posts: 30

Peter_d_roman,


re: "did that help..."


I'm afraid not.  I still don't see what your comments have to do with my question.

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5 years ago  ::  May 28, 2009 - 8:18AM #9
Peter_d_roman
Posts: 5,999

im sorry to have intrupted your studies.


 


i will do so no more.


 


peace and good and tons o'love


 


>o

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5 years ago  ::  May 28, 2009 - 9:32PM #10
bigbear6161
Posts: 4,081

Isn't there reference to the first day of the week in other NT authors?  If not, then perhaps the author of the second ending may have added the first day of the week as the resurrection because his community was already celebrating on Sunday.  Interesting question you have here.  I never really thought about the switch in "Sabbath" from Saturday to Sunday.  Has anyone without a theological axe to grind come up with how this shift took place?  Was it when the communities were differentiating from the Synagogue?  Dave

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