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9 years ago  ::  Feb 23, 2009 - 10:42AM #41
Dutch777
Posts: 9,144
That the church has used the fourfold exegesis until the Reformation is indisputable.  In scripture, both the OT and NT contain figurative / allegorical usage.  Song of Songs has always been interpreted figuratively.  Jesus used allegory in His parables.  Jewish teaching methods include mashal i.e. parabolic teaching, parables, which are allegories.  St. Paul used allegory.  You can research examples of Jesus' and Paul's use of figurative-allegorical teaching yourself; they abound.

I suggest you re-read my prior post more deeply.  Where one level of exegesis is untenable vis-a-vis current knowledge, the next level is employed.  This has been the historic method used throughout the church.  That some church figures read the scriptures literally merely reflects personal usage (we still have some fundies today) and state of knowledge of that time period.

The quote from St. Basil is not germaine.  It merely indicates 1.  He was aware that others in his day employed allegorical exegesis, and 2. He disapproved of it.  He is entitled to his opinion.  It's an exercise in the obvious.
The Path
To Moon
lake
Doesn't Go
There.

So Walk
Your own
DharmaPath
And Be
Mindful

Dutch
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9 years ago  ::  Feb 27, 2009 - 7:35PM #42
maplewood
Posts: 4,517

Seems like the past couple of days of posts are missing...allow me to repost, paraphrased, my last post.


Caleb had mentioned to me that Scripture is all God-breathed, even the OT, and that it is the utlimate, final authority on spiritual matters, as he quoted Paul in 2 Timothy.


I posed Acts 15.  In it, some of the early disciples insisted that the new Gentile disicples follow Mosaic law, which Paul and Barnabas opposed vociferously.  After some discussion, it was decided that they would not be bound to Mosaic law, but just four precepts.


My question was: what happened here?  Why the about face? 


Obviously, Paul argued against the OT, and the Council of Jerusalem decided, with James confirming the decision, that they would ignore the OT and absolve the Gentile disciples of about 600 precepts of the OT.


They did not consider the OT, i.e., the Bible, as the final, ultimate authority, but rather something else.  In this chapter, it is their experience among the Gentiles, in which they saw the workings of the Holy Spirit, and their own discernment.  The Council made the ultimate decision, not the OT.


Were they wrong?  Did they violate the Bible?  Were they, in essence, heretics?


How does one hold that the OT/Bible is the final, ultimate authority in spiritual matters, yet there is a major passage in the Bible itself that discredits that very notion?

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8 years ago  ::  Jul 22, 2009 - 11:44PM #43
Roodog
Posts: 10,168

I had noticed in my 1979 prayer book's calendar that certain days were set aside for saints and others such as the Annunciation, St John the Baptist, Charles I and even John and Charles Wesley. What is supposed to be done when the day comes for these people?

For those who have faith, no explanation is neccessary.
For those who have no faith, no explanation is possible.

St. Thomas Aquinas

If one turns his ear from hearing the Law, even his prayer is an abomination. Proverbs 28:9
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