Anesis,

My understanding is the Hebrew (Jewish) faith of that day included "annual Sabbaths", that we might consider similar to our holidays, except the Hebrew annual Sabbaths were intended to be instructive in their faith ( and also redemptive). Further, Christ criticized the priests of those times for making all Sabbaths a burden to observe, rather than a 'joy' as intended by the Holy Father (God).

As the (likely true) story goes, the Feast of the Unleavening Bread was an annual Sabbath. The significance is 'Leavened Bread" is puffed up (by yeast, leavening), much like our "human pride". Unleavened bread would then signify "humility" and "resolve" to obey God. This act against Christ, the Son of God, was wished by the Jews to be completed before the beginning, at sundown (on Wednesday) of this annual Sabbath of humility, which was the annual Feast of the Unleavened Bread.

THANKYOU for your humility in approaching this subject.

Matthew 28:1 states “after the Sabbath, as the first day of the week..”

This tells me after Saturday, on Sunday.

The day of preparation is the day before the sabbath (Friday), which is the day he was laid to rest, as described in Mark 15:42. On this scripture quote the entire argument hinges.

The chronological reckoning between John’s gospel and the synoptics presents a challenge, especially in relation to the Last Supper (John 13:2). While the synoptics portray the disciples and Christ eating on the Thursday evening (Nisan 14) and Jesus being crucified on Friday, John’s gospel states that the Jews did not enter into the Praetorium “lest they should be defiled, but that they might eat the Passover" (John 18:28). So, the disciples had eaten the Passover on Thursday evening, but the Jews had not. In fact, John 19:14 states that Jesus’ trial and crucifixion were on the day of preparation for the Passover and not after the eating of the Passover, so that with the trial and crucifixion on Friday, Christ was actually sacrificed at the same time the Passover lambs were being slain. The question is “Why did the disciples eat the Passover meal on Thursday?”

The answer lies in a difference among the Jews in the way Israel and Judah kept time. From Josephus, the Mishna, and other ancient Jewish sources we learn that the Jews in the northern half calculated days from sunrise to sunrise. That area included the region of Galilee, where Jesus and all the disciples, except Judas, had grown up. Apparently most, if not all, of the Pharisees used that system of reckoning. Yet Jews in the southern half, which centered in Jerusalem, calculated days from sunset to sunset. Because all the Priests necessarily lived in or near Jerusalem, as did most of the Sadducees, those groups followed the southern scheme. Variations like these and others within the Hebrew reckoning of time undoubtedly caused confusion, then as well as now, (lol).

Furthermore, the difference between being buried an exact period of three 24hr days, and Christ’s own prophecy of rising on the third day is contradictory. In Mttw: 26:61, 17:23, Christ places the emphasis of rising on the third day. Within the period of three 24hr days, Christ rising would automatically cut the time down from exactly three days, to a slight bit less than, unless, of course, one wishes interpret them as rising at "exactly" the second of the end of the third day? This would have to indicate he rose from between 6 and 9 on the third day, yet nowhere is this purported, especially since Mark 15:42 records that Christ had died the Friday before that Sunday.

I take Christ's words of tearing down the temple and rising on the third day at face value, with reference to Jonah as just that: a simulated reference to the three day period, whether described as three days, or three days and three nights.

But we are free to interpret how we deem eh, though the “Tuesday” thing came completely out of left field for me, and have found no evidence to show Nisan 14 fell on such a day. "High Day" is Holy Convocation (Ex.12:16) and the feast of unleavened bread (Lev. 23:6,7): or the 15th day; both were sometimes mentioned in place of the Passover.

All my resources are cited from the King James only, though I dare say, the research is quite inspiring!

Correction on my previous message (post):

"(and your profile reveals a bit about how your mind might work)."

This was applicable to another here with a similar screen name; not AK.

I have a question.  What does the 3 day/3night or the 3 day explanation of Christ's burial and resurrection have to do with the true church or false prophet?  A false prophet would not teach of Christ's vicarious death, burial and resurrection!  We are all believers whichever of the two we believe, we just must believe in Christ's death, burial and resurrection in our place, for our sins. 

Surely you are not implying that someone who believes differently than a 3 day/night burial is a false prophet, are you?

[QUOTE=AKwinters;191260]Hi Ms. UBG,

I like your explanations, and have found these to coincide:

3 Days and 3 Nights

Preparation

Contradiction

What an endearing way to show Christ how much we love him by spending our energies to learn more about him, his life and his work!

Thank You Friend![/QUOTE]
Hi AK:

You said: "What an endearing way to show Christ how much we love him by spending our energies to learn more about him, his life and his work!"

I agree that allowing the "Power of God" (the Holy Spirit) to lead us into a further personal understanding of the mysteries of our Christian faith is a noble pursuit.
Difficulties only arise if you wish to overthrow the authority of Christ and replace God's intentions with your own.