| 2 years ago :: Oct 03, 2011 - 3:50AM #51 | |
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Dear All, Since many of you are understandably strangers to formal logic, it will obviously take time to fully understand the language of Hatcher's proof. I kindly urge you to acquaint yourself further with the language before offering bold commentary that does not really address the proof (while no doubt you think you are addressing the proof). Until you do the homework necessary, it is proving increasingly uneconomical for me to re-clarify the terms of the proof to every new poster. New posters are kindly adviced to take some trouble to carefully read and re-read the initial proof as well as the rest of the thread before posing your otherwise valuable questions and criticisms. You will find that many of the questions have already been answered by either Hatcher or in the ensuing discussion. Owing to the reasons explained in the foregoing, I will now restrict all further responses to the select few posters that have proven their understanding of Hatcher's language, and to comments on the substance that, in my view, have not been properly addressed as yet. I hope nobody will take this personally. My intention is only to keep the discussion focused and my personal time well-managed. With kind regards, LilWabbit
"All things have I willed for you, and you too, for your own sake."
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| 2 years ago :: Oct 03, 2011 - 7:30AM #52 | |
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Lilwabbit Cripes! I turn my back for a second and there's five yards of post to catch up on. I'll do that later. Meanwhile - 1. However, once you have BLHS, there's nothing left to do, because BLHS ≡ BRSH. |
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| 2 years ago :: Oct 03, 2011 - 8:16AM #53 | |
I didn't think either of you did.
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| 2 years ago :: Oct 03, 2011 - 8:17AM #54 | |
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Howdy Blü, Great to have you back.
I think some of your points were already addressed in the five yards of post that you need to scramble through. :)
Correct, but he only identifies one entity G (member of V) that is necessarily self-caused and explains why its logically impossible for there to be others, provided we accept his premises.
You are still mixing the predicate of time into Hatcher's concept of causation which is more generic than that. There is no "point in time" at which G "starts" to exist as G is regarded as the very cause of time along with all the other phenomena within V. G precedes time, causally. In the words of another philosopher, there are two kinds of pre-existence: pre-existence in time and essential pre-existence. G represents essential pre-existence. So do the physical laws in relation to the phenomena they affect. Hatcher's schematic (in his own words) is consistent with almost any kind of imaginable universe, including a universe consisting of an infinitely descending chain of events in time. There need not be a first cause of a linear causal chain for there to be a first cause of the entire causal chain, infinite though such a chain may be. In the words of Bahá'u'lláh himself (the founder of the Bahá'í Faith to which both Hatcher and I belong): "Creation has neither beginning nor end, and none hath ever unravelled its mystery.... The world of existence is contingent, inasmuch as it is preceded by a cause, while essential pre-existence hath ever been, and shall remain, confined to God, magnified be His glory. This statement is being made lest one be inclined to conclude from the earlier assertion, namely that creation hath no beginning and no end, that it is pre-existent. True and essential pre-existence is exclusively reserved to God, while the pre-existence of the world is secondary and relative." (revealed in Arabic in the year 1858, "Tabernacle of Unity") In other words, Bahá'u'lláh anticipates the intellectual confusion that arises when the universe is regarded as beginningless while still preceded by a First Cause, God. He explains both assertions to be true and, indeed, logically the simultaneity of both assertions is unproblematic if a hierarchy of existence (levels of existence) is postulated. A hierarchy of existence is logically implicit in Hatcher's proof since V (all existing entities) would have to consist of time and space among the entities caused by G. Hence, G is independent of time while time is dependent on G. The Bahá'í position sharply disagrees with the Christian position of a creation ex nihilo in time. The universe has always existed and will always exist. Yet, it is created. In the Bahá'í theology God is the unknowable absolute that transcends all human concepts, even the most extraordinary ones such as "infinity" or "eternity" which are ultimately mere projections of human imagination. All of these are mere created attributes, mere mental imageries. Bahá'u'lláh asserts that even the notion of God's "eternity" does not describe God positively but represents a mere "creation" for us humans to imagine His greatness, no matter how inadequately: "O Son of Man! My eternity is My creation, I have created it for thee." (Arabic Hidden Words) With kind regards, LilWabbit
"All things have I willed for you, and you too, for your own sake."
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| 2 years ago :: Oct 03, 2011 - 8:42AM #55 | |
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| 2 years ago :: Oct 03, 2011 - 9:39AM #56 | |
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Lilwabbit There is no "point in time" at which G "starts" to exist as G is regarded as the very cause of time along with all the other phenomena within V. G precedes time, causally. If time didn't exist in whatever place or state G was existing in, then G couldn't change - and unless G changed, G couldn't cause anything, no? So how does Hatcher explain change without time, and how does he know?
In A → B, must the cause exist earlier in time than the effect? Grateful if you can refer me to the answer. |
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| 2 years ago :: Oct 03, 2011 - 10:49AM #57 | |
But this only seems to apply to pre-existing phenomenon. In this proof it is suggesting or implying that A exists and B is created. The "effect" implied in this proof is creation, not a relationship of existing entities/phenomenon. If there is no time how can we distinguish a state of A existing before B, and A causing B? If both exist simultaneously then we should be referring to this as AB. That would imply a self-cause as well. However, to say both exist "simultaneously" implies a moment in time, yet if A causes B, and there is no time to account for, how do we account for a cause or change? The proof still claims a change. How is A to be distinguished from B at all? How is there to be a "cause" when the word itself implies time in the context of the proof? A may cause B without a time delay but this implies a time before and a time after. |
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| 2 years ago :: Oct 03, 2011 - 11:04AM #58 | |
No worries. Maybe you could be so kind to get back to the rest of us if/when you can express the "proof" in plain words. You wouldn't want to restrict such an important discovery to the elite few, would you? |
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| 2 years ago :: Oct 03, 2011 - 11:09AM #59 | |
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| 2 years ago :: Oct 03, 2011 - 11:12AM #60 | |
eudaimonia, Mark |
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