| 1 year ago :: Apr 09, 2012 - 1:42AM #501 | |
"Total" here means something being a reason for a thing's existence. Not just being a reason for a mere "change" in an existing state of affairs.
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| 1 year ago :: Apr 09, 2012 - 10:03AM #502 | |
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Lilwabbit Total cause means something exerting the most total of all logical effects -- being existent. The state of affairs existing as a result of the effect did not exist beforehand. The cause brought it into existence. Therefore by your definition it's total. Cause is simply something exerting an influence or an effect. How does a cause A exert an influence on B to produce an effect without transfer of energy to B? |
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| 1 year ago :: Apr 09, 2012 - 10:38AM #503 | |
Again with the time predicate. Your foregoing description applies only to a scenario where time exists and an effect of lesser-order existence occurs within it. But you're still assuming without proof that time is necessary for causation whereas the scenario "G is the cause of T" remains perfectly logical while containing no "beforehand" whatsoever. The statement only discusses a higher-order total causation -- i.e. that something produces the effect of (the existence of) time itself. Similarly, "G is the cause of G" is perfectly logical a scenario if it involves a time-independent causation of the kind "G is the cause of T". Such a self-causation can be more accurately expressed as "G is a sufficient reason for its own existence" or simply as "G is self-sufficient".
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| 1 year ago :: Apr 09, 2012 - 11:03PM #504 | |
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Lilwabbit there is no logical necessity for a cause to involve energy. However, by logical necessity such a cause G of E would have to involve something of higher order than energy while we wouldn't know what that something is. You've already told us that a cause is something exerting an influence. Your statement above accepts that a cause involves the transfer from A to B or energy or something energy-like (and that this is what is meant by 'exerting an influence'). Without a definition of 'something energy-like' it's not possible to discuss it, so let's leave it to one side. Cause A transfers energy to B. Energy can be transferred at c. We have no reason to think it can be transferred faster. |
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| 1 year ago :: Apr 10, 2012 - 12:34AM #505 | |
Read more carefully. The statement above accepts that logically a cause of E cannot be E but rather something of higher order. There's nothing in the statement that implies that this something is "energy-like". That's your own faulty conclusion. The statement only implies that this "something" is nothing of lesser order than energy, but neither is it energy. Then you went on to attach energy's properties to this "something" G that is the cause of E. However, for something that is not energy but of a higher order it is logically unfounded to deem it bound by properties characteristic to energy-transfer (such as time). This is all the more the case if G happens also to be the cause of T.
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| 1 year ago :: Apr 10, 2012 - 1:02AM #506 | |
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Lilwabbit Do the same thing for an 'influence' of the kind you speak of with causation. |
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| 1 year ago :: Apr 10, 2012 - 2:35AM #507 | |
The cause of entropy. Besides, you're still missing the point. Even if there were no such known examples, it would not prove that causality must always involve transfer of energy. Just because all the ravens known to Tom are black doesn't logically imply they all must be. In physics we have found no indication that the cause of entropy increase contains energy (the effect, namely entropy increase, obviously involves energy). Rather, we have every indication that the cause of entropy increase is a law.
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| 1 year ago :: Apr 10, 2012 - 4:39AM #508 | |
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Lilwabbit What inherent properties cause physical systems of all sizes to have energy-dispersals towards cooler bodies? Energy can't move from the lower to the higher because it would need extra energy to do so. Instead, much more efficiently, it moves from the higher to the lower. If you introduce 1 unit of water at 50º into 1 unit of water at 30º in a closed system then by a series of averaging transactions between the molecules of water (initially in each case 50 flowing towards 30 with both ending up with 40), the 2 units of water will before long have a uniform temperature of 40º. Even if there were no such known examples, it would not prove that causality must always involve transfer of energy. It means you had no basis in reality for asserting it. You already rule unicorns out on that basis, for example. A reality principle is essential. |
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| 1 year ago :: Apr 10, 2012 - 4:53AM #509 | |
This we all know. But the question was "why?". What causes such a directionality of energy-dispersal towards colder bodies? If you say, "because it can't possibly go the other way without outside energy moving in", then you're inadvertently appealing to an invisible objective law. Such an appeal would, indeed, be the correct conclusion. However, there's no way whereby you can demonstrate that some "energy-transfer", or "time-delay" for that matter, occurs in such a causation between the 2nd law and energy-dispersal towards colder bodies. If, on the other hand, you reject any objective law and make an appeal to inherent properties in the energy itself, you have failed to clarify what those inherent properties, in fact, are. You also evaded my second question.
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| 1 year ago :: Apr 10, 2012 - 6:53AM #510 | |
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Lilwabbit I, or Hatcher rather, have merely defined total causation logically In this conversation it's just an idle armchair game if it doesn't accord to reality. What's Hatcher's definition of a cause? What's his explantion of an effect? If it involves 'influences', what's his definition of an 'influence'? And by what means does he say influences influence? |
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